ASCP Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exam Prep FREE Sample Exam

Regarding the indirect antiglobulin test (antibody screen), which of the following statements is correct?

A negative antibody screen guarantees the patient has no red cell alloantibodies

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The antibody screen detects antibodies attached to the patient's own red cells in vivo

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The antibody screen uses reagent red cells of known antigen composition to detect unexpected IgG alloantibodies in patient plasma at the antiglobulin phase

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Screening cells are group AB red cells pooled from at least ten donors

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Case from a teaching-hospital case: a 34-year-old woman requires 4 antigen-negative red cell units. The antigen is absent from 25% of donor units. Regarding antigen-negative unit selection, how many units must be screened on average to find 4?

16 units

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8 units

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4 units

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32 units

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A competency assessment in the blood bank laboratory includes a case built around delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions. Which of the following statements about this topic is correct?

Delayed hemolytic reactions occur within the first 15 minutes of transfusion

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Delayed reactions are prevented by premedicating with antihistamines

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A falling hemoglobin a week after transfusion is never related to the transfusion

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A delayed hemolytic reaction typically appears days after transfusion as an anamnestic alloantibody response, with falling hemoglobin, a newly positive DAT, and jaundice

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A scientist applying knowledge of renal tubular function and urine electrolytes to a bench problem in the chemistry laboratory should recognize which of the following statements as correct?

Microalbuminuria refers to visible protein on routine dipstick testing

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A serum creatinine alone fully characterizes renal tubular function

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Fractional excretion and urine electrolyte patterns help localize kidney injury, but the core laboratory assessment of renal function combines creatinine-based eGFR, urinalysis findings, and urine protein quantification

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Urine protein is normally excreted at more than 300 mg per day

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A 45-year-old man has a hemoglobin A1c result of 5.5%. Regarding estimated average glucose (eAG), what eAG corresponds to this A1c?

99 mg/dL

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86 mg/dL

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139 mg/dL

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111 mg/dL

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Regarding digoxin monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?

A digoxin level drawn 1 hour after dosing accurately reflects tissue levels

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Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, its level must be drawn at least 6 hours after a dose to allow tissue distribution, and hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity even at 'therapeutic' levels

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Hyperkalemia is the electrolyte disturbance that most potentiates digoxin toxicity

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Digoxin toxicity never occurs within the therapeutic range

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A medical laboratory scientist is orienting a new employee and uses polycythemia vera and erythrocytosis as a teaching point. Which of the following statements about this topic is correct?

JAK2 testing is irrelevant to the classification of erythrocytosis

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Erythropoietin is elevated in polycythemia vera because the marrow is hypoxic

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Polycythemia vera is a myeloproliferative neoplasm usually carrying JAK2 V617F, with panmyelosis and a characteristically low serum erythropoietin, unlike secondary erythrocytosis where erythropoietin is elevated

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Relative erythrocytosis from plasma volume contraction shows a raised red cell mass

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Case from a teaching-hospital case: a WBC count for a 52-year-old man is 6.0 x 10^3/uL and the differential reports 40% neutrophils. Regarding absolute cell counts, what is the absolute neutrophil count?

6 x 10^3/uL

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4.8 x 10^3/uL

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2.4 x 10^3/uL

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4 x 10^3/uL

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Regarding heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which of the following statements is correct?

HIT causes thrombocytopenia through marrow suppression by heparin

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HIT is a prothrombotic, antibody-mediated reaction to heparin (anti-PF4/heparin IgG) in which the platelet count falls by half or more about 5-10 days after exposure and thrombosis, not bleeding, is the major danger

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Platelet transfusion is the first-line therapy for HIT

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The treatment of HIT is to switch from unfractionated heparin to low-molecular-weight heparin

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Regarding aztreonam and cross-resistance patterns, which of the following statements is correct?

Aztreonam, a monobactam, has no Gram-positive or anaerobic activity and is hydrolyzed by ESBLs and AmpC enzymes, but it is stable to metallo-beta-lactamases such as NDM

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Aztreonam covers Gram-positive cocci adequately for empiric therapy

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Aztreonam cross-reacts fully with penicillins in all allergic patients

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Metallo-beta-lactamases hydrolyze aztreonam efficiently

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A clinician questions a laboratory finding, and the scientist reviews streptococcal grouping and hemolysis patterns to explain the result. Which of the following statements about this topic is correct?

Optochin resistance distinguishes Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci

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PYR positivity is characteristic of group B streptococci (CAMP positive)

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Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) is beta-hemolytic and PYR-positive and bacitracin-susceptible, while Streptococcus pneumoniae is alpha-hemolytic, optochin-susceptible, and bile-soluble

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Bacitracin susceptibility identifies Streptococcus agalactiae

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Regarding fungal identification: yeasts, which of the following statements is correct?

Candida albicans is presumptively identified by a positive germ tube test (within 2-3 hours in serum), while Cryptococcus neoformans is a heavily encapsulated yeast whose polysaccharide capsule is demonstrated by India ink or, more sensitively, cryptococcal antigen testing

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The germ tube test identifies Candida glabrata as positive

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India ink examination is more sensitive than cryptococcal antigen testing

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Cryptococcus is a filamentous mold in tissue and culture

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ASCP Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) Exam Prep FREE Sample Exam — Fixed Set

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